Amateur Radio Extra Exam


50 questions, You must answer 37 (75%) questions correctly to pass


Refer to Charts for any questions requiring information.


For your benefit, any question not answered will be given a random selection.




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1. E1A11
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If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is accountable for the rules violation?

A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station and conditionally the first forwarding station
C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications


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2. E1G02
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If an RF amplifier manufacturer was granted Certification for one of its amplifier models for amateur use, what would this allow the manufacturer to market?

A. All current models of their equipment
B. Only that particular amplifier model
C. Any future amplifier models
D. Both the current and any future amplifier models


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3. E1A06
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What must an amateur licensee do if a spurious emission from his or her station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station?

A. Pay a fine each time it happens
B. Submit a written explanation to the FCC
C. Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once
D. Eliminate or reduce the interference


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4. E1D04
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Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

A. Only Extra class amateur stations
B. Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Technician)
C. Any licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization
D. Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Technician) certified by the responsible civil defense organization


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5. E1D09
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What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies available for RACES operation?

A. An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934
B. An emergency in only one state in the US would limit RACES operations to a single HF frequency band
C. An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations to a single VHF band
D. An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life


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6. E1F14
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Who may prepare an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

A. The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
B. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
C. An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
D. An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool


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7. E1E08
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Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation?

A. Any except those of Technician licensees
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Extra class licensees
C. Only those of Extra class licensees
D. Any amateur station


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8. E2C07
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During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find the highest level of contest activity?

A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
C. At the bottom of each band, usually in the weak signal segment
D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency


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9. E2B11
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What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm?

A. 6 minutes
B. 3.3 minutes
C. 6 seconds
D. 1/60 second


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10. E2A07
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What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode L in amateur satellite operations?

A. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters
B. Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters
C. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 23 centimeters
D. Satellite receiving on 23 centimeters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters


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11. E2A01
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What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

A. From west to east
B. From east to west
C. From south to north
D. From north to south


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12. E3C09
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For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground?

A. It increases with increasing height
B. It decreases with increasing height
C. It does not vary with height
D. It depends on E-region height, not antenna height


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13. E3B04
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What type of propagation is probably occurring if a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?

A. Long-path
B. Sporadic-E
C. Transequatorial
D. Auroral


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14. E3C04
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Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?

A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and FM
C. FM and CW
D. RTTY and AM


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15. E4E03
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What pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna?

A. One which is non-cardioid
B. One with good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
C. One with good top-to-bottom and side-to-side ratios
D. One with shallow nulls


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16. E4D10
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What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter?

A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B. An electrical-sparking signal
C. A differential-mode signal at the AC-line frequency
D. Harmonics of the AC-line frequency


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17. E4B13
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What does a dip-meter do?

A. It accurately indicates signal strength
B. It measures frequency accurately
C. It measures transmitter output power accurately
D. It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit


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18. E4E05
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Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding?

A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
B. It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls
D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals


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19. E4B12
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What is a dip-meter?

A. A field-strength meter
B. An SWR meter
C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
D. A marker generator


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20. E5D12
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In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm resistor at 10 kHz?

A. 628 + j600
B. 628 - j600
C. 600 + j628
D. 600 - j628


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21. E5D06
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What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor?

A. Voltage and current are in phase
B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees


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22. E5B05
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The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?

A. 86.5%
B. 63.2%
C. 36.8%
D. 13.5%


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23. E5C08
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What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart?

A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center
D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis


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24. E5B04
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The capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage after two time constants?

A. 36.8%
B. 63.2%
C. 86.5%
D. 95%


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25. E5C05
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What type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1?

A. Smith chart
B. Free-space radiation directivity chart
C. Vertical-space radiation pattern chart
D. Horizontal-space radiation pattern chart


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26. E5A16
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What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

A. 22.3 kHz
B. 76.2 kHz
C. 31.4 kHz
D. 10.8 kHz


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27. E5E04
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Why does most of an RF current flow within a few thousandths of an inch of its conductor's surface?

A. Because a conductor has AC resistance due to self-inductance
B. Because the RF resistance of a conductor is much less than the DC resistance
C. Because of the heating of the conductor's interior
D. Because of skin effect


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28. E5D08
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In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

A. 121 ohms, /__35_degrees__
B. 141 ohms, /__45_degrees__
C. 161 ohms, /__55_degrees__
D. 181 ohms, /__65_degrees__


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29. E6E01
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For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter?

A. 6 kHz at -6 dB
B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB
C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
D. 15 kHz at -6 dB


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30. E6E02
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For double-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter?

A. 1 kHz at -6 dB
B. 500 Hz at -6 dB
C. 6 kHz at -6 dB
D. 15 kHz at -6 dB


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31. E6A16
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What do the initials CMOS stand for?

A. Common mode oscillating system
B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate


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32. E6B03
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What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

A. Point contact
B. Zener
C. Tunnel
D. Junction


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33. E6C04
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What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power-supply?

A. -2.0 to -5.5 volts
B. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
C. 0.0 to 0.8 volts
D. -0.8 to 0.4 volts


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34. E7G04
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What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter circuit?

A. Electrolytic
B. Disc ceramic
C. Polystyrene
D. Paper dielectric


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35. E7D01
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What are three major oscillator circuits often used in Amateur Radio equipment?

A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce


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36. E7E09
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What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit?

A. Spurious mixer products are generated
B. Mixer blanking occurs
C. Automatic limiting occurs
D. A beat frequency is generated


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37. E7A12
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In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?

A. A low level
B. A positive-transition level
C. A negative-transition level
D. A high level


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38. E7F04
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What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

A. An emitter-follower
B. Two frequency multipliers
C. Two flip-flops
D. A voltage divider


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39. E7E10
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What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop filter and a reference frequency source?

A. A direct digital synthesizer
B. A hybrid synthesizer
C. A phase-locked loop synthesizer
D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer


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40. E7A13
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In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?

A. A low level
B. A positive-transition level
C. A negative-transition level
D. A high level


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41. E8E14
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What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected?

A. Detector noise
B. Man-made noise
C. Receiver front-end noise
D. Atmospheric noise


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42. E8A16
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What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts?

A. 900 watts
B. 1765 watts
C. 2500 watts
D. 3000 watts


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43. E8C03
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What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

A. It includes built-in error-correction features
B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
D. It uses one character as a "shift" code to send numeric and special characters


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44. E8E11
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What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
B. Waves with a rotating electric field
C. Waves that circle the Earth
D. Waves produced by a loop antenna


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45. E8E10
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Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy across a vacuum


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46. E9A13
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How can the approximate beamwidth of a beam antenna be determined?

A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference
B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna


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47. E9C16
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What is one characteristic of a Beverage antenna?

A. For best performance it must not exceed 1/4 wavelength in length at the desired frequency
B. For best performance it must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground at the desired frequency
C. For best performance it should be configured as four-sided loop
D. For best performance it should be as long as possible


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48. E9D02
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What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station in earth operation?

A. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
B. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna
D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite transmitter power


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49. E9B06
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Which is NOT an important reason to evaluate a gain antenna across the whole frequency band for which it was designed?

A. The gain may fall off rapidly over the whole frequency band
B. The feedpoint impedance may change radically with frequency
C. The rearward pattern lobes may vary excessively with frequency
D. The dielectric constant may vary significantly


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50. E9E01
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What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system